No. This isn't looked at as a loss. If that seems strange to you, look at it this way: When we give Remodeler her "loss in value," we're making sure she gets all the money she would have received if the contract had been performed. In order to get that money, she would have had to spend the $4,000 (and a couple thousand more). So if we give her loss in value as well as the money she spent, we're really compensating her twice.

Do you follow this or would you like a more detailed explanation?